My doc’s office faxed the cytology report to me this morning, but rather than illumination, I have received confusion.
Literally all the report says is:
Right thyroid nodule (fine needle aspiration)
--Hypercellular aspirate fluid composed of blood with scant colloid and cytologically atypical follicle cells
--Excision of this lesion is recommended
Note: Four smears are reviewed
It is my understanding (from the famous literature) that the “hypercellular aspirate [. . .] with scant colloid” is typical of follicular neoplasms, while “cytologically atypical follicle cells” is of no help whatsoever. “Atypical” how exactly? Okay so “not normal” but there are oh-so-many ways for a cell to be “not normal.” And are there scant cytologically atypical follicle cells, or is it scant colloid. . .AND THEN ALSO cytologically atypical follicle cells? If there are lots of cells (hypercellularity) but scant cytologically atypical follicle cells, then shouldn’t this be re-biopsied rather than sent straight in for surgery?
Well, but this paper suggests that my risk of cancer is now hovering around 25%, so not as bad as I thought, but still worse than a 1% chance.